Options income basics: what a premium seller is paid for

What you will learn

  • Explain what an option seller is paid for and why the payoff is asymmetric
  • Describe the variance risk premium and the evidence for it
  • Work out the win rate a premium strategy needs to break even
  • Set entry, exit and invalidation rules before selling premium

Check your understanding

Answer each question to see the explanation. Answers are not saved.

  1. A strategy collects $1.20 per share when it wins, and its average loss when it loses is $4.80 per share. What win rate does it need just to break even, before costs?

    1. A 50%
    2. B 75%
    3. C 80%
    4. D 96%
    Show the answer

    Answer: C. The loss is 4 times the gain, so the break-even win rate is 4 ÷ (1 + 4) = 80%. Check: 0.8 × 1.20 = 0.96 equals 0.2 × 4.80 = 0.96.

  2. You sell one 60 put for $2.10. A poor earnings report gaps the stock to $48, where it stays until expiry. What is the loss on the contract?

    1. A $990
    2. B $1,200
    3. C $1,410
    4. D $210
    Show the answer

    Answer: A. The put is worth 60 − 48 = $12 at expiry, offset by the $2.10 received: (12 − 2.10) × 100 = $990. That is almost five times the $210 maximum gain.

  3. A stock's 30-day options are priced at 32% implied volatility. Over the next 30 days the stock realizes 24% volatility. Who was favored by the pricing, on average?

    1. A The buyer, because the stock moved more than options priced
    2. B The seller, because options priced more movement than occurred
    3. C Neither, because implied and realized volatility are unrelated
    Show the answer

    Answer: B. Implied above realized means buyers paid for 32% volatility and received 24%; that gap is the variance risk premium the seller collects. A single trade can still lose if the move came at the wrong moment or in the wrong direction for the strike.

  4. A cash-secured put earns $150 on $4,850 of capital in 30 days. What is the annualized return, and what is wrong with relying on it?

    1. A About 3.1%, which is already the yearly figure
    2. B About 37.6%, if repeated twelve times without a big loss
    3. C About 37.6%, a reliable estimate of the yearly income to expect
    4. D About 18%, because only half the trades win
    Show the answer

    Answer: B. 150 ÷ 4,850 = 3.09% for 30 days, and 3.09% × 365 ÷ 30 ≈ 37.6%. Annualizing ignores the tail loss that a year of repeated short puts is likely to meet.

  5. You have sold cash-secured puts on eight large semiconductor stocks, each sized at 5% of the account. What is the main risk of this book?

    1. A Little risk, because eight positions are well diversified
    2. B That the stocks rise and the puts expire worthless
    3. C That the premiums are too small to be worth the effort
    4. D A sector sell-off hitting all eight at once
    Show the answer

    Answer: D. Stocks in one sector are highly correlated, so the eight puts behave like one large position of 40% of the account. Rising IV in a sell-off also makes closing them more expensive.

  6. You sold a 40-day put when IV was 35% and 20-day realized volatility 25%. Two weeks later realized volatility is 38%, IV is 34% and the term structure has inverted. What does a rule-based plan say?

    1. A Thesis invalidated: close or reduce
    2. B Sell more puts, because the premium is now richer
    3. C Hold to expiry, because short puts usually win
    Show the answer

    Answer: A. The trade rested on options pricing more movement than the stock would deliver; realized volatility now exceeds implied, and the inverted curve signals stress. Both are invalidation conditions set before entry.

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